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CBSE 10th Standard English Subject Case Study Questions with Solutions

By QB365 on 20 May, 2021

QB365 Provides the updated CASE Study Questions for Class 10 , and also provide the detail solution for each and every case study questions . Case study questions are latest updated question pattern from NCERT, QB365 will helps to get  more marks in Exams

Related 10th Standard CBSE English Materials

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Important CBSE Class 10 Case Study Based Questions 2024: Source-Based Questions & Answers for Quick Revision

Important case study questions for cbse class 10: practice important case study/source-based questions from essential themes of cbse class 10. these source-based questions are important for the upcoming cbse class 10  board exam 2024..

CBSE Class 10 Exam 2024: CBSE Class 10 introduces Case Study Based Questions to enhance students' analytical and problem-solving skills. These questions present real-life scenarios or situations, triggering students to apply their knowledge to solve them. Overall, Case Study Based Questions are a valuable addition to the CBSE curriculum, encouraging active learning and preparing students for real-life challenges.

CBSE Class 10 Case Study Based Questions 2024

CBSE Class 10 Science Paper Format 2024

CBSE Class 10 Maths Paper Format 2024

Cbse class 10 social science paper format 2024.

Must Read: Top 50+ CBSE Class 10 MCQs for Board Exam 2024 with Answers to Secure Good Marks

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Case Study Questions To Be Asked in CBSE Class 10 and 12 Board Exam 2021

In Class 10 and 12 board exams 2021, students will observe new types of case study questions. For the first time, the board has introduced the case study questions in the board exam. After a thorough analysis of CBSE Sample Papers 2021 and Marking Scheme, we have provided the key points related to the CBSE case study questions that every student must know. This information will help students to understand the changes in the exam pattern. Also, they can prepare effectively for class 10 and 12 board exams.

CBSE Case Study Questions for Class 10 and 12 Board Exams 2021

The Central Board of Secondary Education has made a few changes in the question paper pattern of class 10 and 12 board exams. It has increased the weightage of the multiple choice questions and introduced case study questions for the 2021 CBSE board exam. It will check comprehension, interpretation and writing skills of the students. It will bring competency-based and skill-oriented teaching and learning in students.

In case study-based questions, students are expected to answer questions after reading the given paragraph or a passage. The questions will be asked from the concept part of the NCERT textbooks . So, students are advised to read the book thoroughly to handle the case study questions in the board exam.

CBSE Class 10 Case Study Based Questions

In board exams, students will find the questions based on assertion and reasoning. Also, there will be a few questions based on case studies. In that, a paragraph will be given, and then the MCQ questions based on it will be asked. For Mathematics subjects, there would be 5 case based sub-parts questions, wherein a student has to attempt 4 subpart questions.

CBSE Class 12 Case Study Based Questions

Two case based questions on the main topics in Class 12 board exams in each subject are expected to be asked. A case study will have 5 objective questions. Students have to answer any 4 out of 5 case based questions.

Tips to Solve Case Study Questions for Class 10 and 12 Board Exams

Students can easily score marks in these case based questions. They only need to have a conceptual understanding of the topic and a thorough knowledge of the subject. Here, we have provided some tips, which will help students in answering the case study questions.

1) Students need to read the passage or comprehension thoroughly from beginning to the end. Then, they should go through questions which are based on the passage.

2) After reading the questions, students should try to identify what the examiner is expecting in the answer.

3) Sometimes, the question is tricky and difficult to understand. So, in that case, students should read the passage and question again.

4) After understanding the question, students should check out the options, and only then should they write their answer.

We will be publishing more tips and tricks on how to answer the case study questions for the board exam. We will also compile subject wise case based questions for Class 10 and 12 by covering the important topics of the CBSE Syllabus . By practising them, students will get a good command over case based questions. They can easily score marks in this portion and can maximise their score in the board exam. So, stay tuned to BYJU’S for more updates on case based questions related to CBSE. Till then, students must keep practising and working hard to boost their board exam preparation.

The board can release CBSE Class 10 and 12 exam date sheets anytime. Meanwhile, students should practise the CBSE Sample Paper 2021 to get more ideas and practise on different types of case study questions. By solving these questions, students can easily understand the latest change in the exam pattern and prepare for the board exam accordingly.

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Case Based (Factual) Unseen Passages: Practice English Grammar for School Classes

• Post last modified: 17 September 2022
• Post category: Grammar Exercises / School Grammar

What are Case Based (Factual Passages)? Simply put, factual passages are those passages, which let the readers imagine and feel the factual qualities of a topic as mentioned in the passage. The topic can be about a place, person, thing or event. A factual passage tells the reader about the consecutive things related to the topic in detail, occurring in an orderly manner.

Case Based (Factual) Passages

1. read the passage given below: [cbse set 2, 2021-22] .

• Milkha Singh, also known as The Flying Sikh, was an Indian track and field sprinter who was introduced to the sport while serving in the Indian Army. He is the only athlete to win gold in 400 metres at the Asian Games as well as the Commonwealth Games. He also won gold medals in the 1958 and 1962 Asian Games. He represented India in the 1956 Summer Olympics in Melbourne, the 1960 Summer Olympics in Rome and the 1964 Summer Olympics in Tokyo) He was awarded the Padma Shri, India’s fourth-highest civilian honour, in recognition of his sporting achievements 
• The race for which Singh is best remembered is his fourth-place finish in the 400 metres final at the 1960 Olympic Games. He led the race till the 200 m mark before easing off, allowing others to pass him. Singh’s fourth-place time of 45.73 seconds was the Indian national record for almost 40 years. 
• From beginnings that saw him orphaned and displaced during the partition of India, Singh became a sporting icon in the country. In 2008, journalist Rohit Baijnath described Singh as “the finest athlete India has ever produced”. 
• He was disappointed with his debut performance at the 1956 Melbourne Olympics. *1 returned to India, chastened by my poor performance in Melbourne. I had been so excited by the prospects of being part of the Indian Olympics team, but, hadn’t realized how strong and professional the competition would be. My success in India had filled me with a false sense of pride and it was only when I was on the track that I saw how inconsequential my talents were when pitted against superbly fit and seasoned athletes. It was then that I understood what competition actually meant, and that if I wanted to succeed on the international arena, I must be prepared to test my mettle against the best athletes in the world.” 
• Then he decided to make sprinting the sole focus of his life. “Running had thus become my God, my religion and my beloved”. My life during those two years was governed by strict rules and regulations and a self-imposed penance. Every morning I would rise at the crack of dawn, get into my sports kit and dash off to the track, where I would run two or three miles cross-country in the company of my coach.” 
• On how he pushed himself through the tough days of vigorous training. “I practiced so strenuously that often I was drained of all energy, and there were times when I would increase my speed to such an extent that after my rounds, I would vomit blood or drop-down down unconscious through sheer exercise. My doctors and coaches warned me, asked me to slow down to maintain my health and equilibrium but my determination was too strong to give up. My only focus was to become the best athlete in the world. But then images of    a    packed    stadium    filled    with    cheering    spectators, wildly applauding me as I crossed the finishing line, would flash across my mind and I would start again, encouraged by visions of victory.” 

Based on your reading answer any five questions from the six given below: 1×5=5  

(i) What is Milka Singh known as? What realization did Milkha Singh have when he was on the track during the Melbourne Olympics?  

(ii) List any two of Milkha Singh’s achievements.  

(iii)  What strict rules and regulations did Milkha Singh follow?  

(iv)  State two consequences of his hard and strenuous practice.  

(v)  What motivated Milkha Singh to become the best athlete in the world?  

(vi)  Explain the phrase ‘I would start again’ in the last sentence. 

1. Milkha Singh was known as ‘The Flying Sikh’. 

He realised how inconsequential his talents were when pitied against superbly fit seasoned athletes. He also realised that he needed to prepare well to test his mettle against the best athletes in the world. 

2. (i) The only athlete to win 400 meters at the Asian Games as well as Commonwealth Games. 

(ii) Won gold in 1958 and 1962 Asian Games. His national record stood unbroken for 40 years. 

(iii) He was awarded Padam Shiri for his sporting achievements. 

3. Every morning he would rise at the crack of the dawn, get into his sports kit and dash off to the track, where he would run two or three miles cross-country with his coach. 

4. ( i) He was drained of all energy. 

(ii) He would vomit blood or drop-down unconscious through sheer exercise. 

5. He was motivated by his vision of victory at a packed stadium with spectators cheering and applauding him as he crossed the finishing line. 

6. ‘I would start again’ means here that he was encouraged to shun any complacency and start again with the double energy and determination to become the best athlete. 

Q. Read the following excerpt from a Case Study. J.K. Rowling – A Journey. [CBSE SET 2, 2022] 

The story of Joanne Kathleen Rowling’s near magical rise to fame is almost as well known as the characters she creates. 

Rowling was constantly writing and telling stories to her younger sister Dianne. “The first story I ever wrote down was about a rabbit called Rabbit.” Rowling said in an interview. “He got the measles and was visited by his friends including a giant bee called Miss Bee. And ever since Rabbit and Miss Bee, I have always wanted to be a writer, though I rarely told anyone so. 

However, my parents, both of whom come from impoverished backgrounds and neither of whom had been to college, took the view that my overactive imagination was an amusing personal quirk that would never pay a mortgage or secure a pension. 

A writer from the age of six, with two unpublished novels in the * drawer, she was stuck on a train when Harry walked into her mind fully formed. She spent the next five years constructing the plots of seven books, one for every year of his secondary school life. 

Rowling says she started writing the first book, Harry’ Potter and the Sorcerer’s Stone, in Portugal, where she was teaching English. 

At first nobody wanted to publish Harry Potter.  She was told that plot was too complex. Refusing to compromise, she found a publisher. 

n 1997 Rowling received her first royalty cheque. By book three, she had sky rocketed to the top of the publishing world. A row of zeroes appeared on the author’s bank balance and her life was turned upside down. Day and night she had journalists knocking on the unanswered door of her flat. 

Rowling’s quality control has become legendary, as her obsession with accuracy. She’s thrilled with Stephen Fry’s taped version of the books and outraged that an Italian dust jacket showed Harry minus his glasses. “Don’t they understand that the glasses are the clue to his vulnerability.” 

Annual earnings of J.K. Rowling from 2010 to 2019 

On the basis of your understanding of the passage answer any five of the six questions given below. 1×5=5 

(i) Explain J.K. Rowling’s ‘near magical rise to fame’. 

(ii) What reason did the publishers give for rejecting Rowling’s book?  

(iii) What was the drawback of achieving fame? 

(iv) Why was Rowling outraged with the Italian dust jacket? 

(v)  Find a word in the last para that means the same as ‘insecure/helpless. 

(vi) According to the graph, how many years did it take Rowling to become very successful?

(i) Jk Rowling’s near magical rise to fame is well known as the character she creates I.e. her popular characters led her to magical fame. She was on top of the world of publishing house after the book three was published and her bank balance increased tremendously.  

(ii) She was told that her plot of Harry Potter was too complex. 

(iii) The draw back was that she was approached day and night by journalists knocking at the door of her flat. It was becoming a nuisance and she did not respond all of them. 

(iv) She was obsessed with quality and accuracy and therefore was outraged at an Italian just Jacket for showing Harry without glasses. 

(v) vulnerability 

(v) It took around 6 years for Rowlings to become very successful.

Q. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

India Covid-19 numbers explained

1. With novel Coronavirus spreading rapidly all over the country, there are only three states right now, Meghalaya, Sikkim and Andaman and Nicobar Islands, that have less than 1,000 people infected with the disease.

2. Lakshadweep, of course, still hasn’t reported even a single case till now, the only region in India entirely free of the epidemic.

3. Otherwise, even the relatively smaller states now have significantly large spread of the disease. Goa, for example, has seen more than 7,000 of its people infected by the virus till now. Tripura has over 5,500 cases, while Manipur has more than 3,000, and Nagaland a little less than 2,500. Puducherry has more than 4,000 cases, while even Daman and Diu has over 1,300 people infected.

4. And in each of these states, the numbers are rising at a fast pace, at a rate higher than the national level. The infections had initially reached these states in the first and second week of May, when the lockdown was relaxed for the first time to enable people stuck in different parts of the country to return to their native places.

5. After a period of very slow growth, the number of cases have begun to rise rapidly in the last one month. In Goa, for example, the total number of infected people has nearly doubled in the last 15 days. Same has happened in Puducherry, as well.

6. Tuesday was one of those rare occasions when the number of active cases in the country, those who are yet to recover from the disease, went down compared to the previous day. That is because the number of recoveries, combined with the number of deaths, exceeded the new cases that were detected on Tuesday.

7. With over 52,500 new cases detected in the country, the total number of infections crossed 19 lakh, out of `which 12.82 lakh people have recovered from the disease. The number of dead is now close to 40,000.

8. The number of recoveries on Tuesday was the highest-ever for a single day. More than 51,700 people were declared to have been recovered. Three days earlier, the number of recoveries had crossed 50,000 for the first time, but in the next two days the number had fallen to much lower levels.

Choose the correct option to answer the questions based on the above passage and graphics. Do any ten.

(a) How are these three states – Meghalaya, Sikkim and Andaman and Nicobar Islands – different from the rest of India? (i) they are the only states to have less than 1,000 people infected with novel coronavirus (ii) they are three of the five states to have less than 1,000 people infected with novel coronavirus (iii) they are the only states to have less than 2,000 people infected with novel coronavirus (iv) none of these

(b) __________ is the only region in India which is entirely free of the epidemic. (i) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (ii) Maharashtra (iii) Lakshadweep (iv) Tripura

(c) What is common among Goa, Tripura, Manipur, Nagaland, Puducherry and Daman and Diu? (i) the numbers are rising at a fast pace at rates lower than the national level (ii) the numbers are falling at a fast pace at rates equal than the national level (iii) the numbers are rising at a fast pace at rates higher than the national level (iv) none of these

(d) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the inherent qualities of climate in the present times. (i) 1 and 4 (ii) 2 and 6 (iii) 1 and 3 (iv) 3 and 5

(e) Which date in the graph shows the highest jump of detected cases in a day? (i) July 30 (ii) July 31 (iii) August 1 (iv) August 2

(f) Of the 19 lakh infected cases, how many have recovered? (i) 11.82 lakh (ii) 13.82 lakh (iii) 12.81 lakh (iv) 12.82 lakh

(g) More than 51,700 people were declared to have been recovered on _______. (i) Wednesday (ii) Sunday (iii) Tuesday (iv) Monday

(h) When had the number of recoveries crossed 50,000 for the first time? (i) two days earlier (ii) Tuesday (iii) three days earlier than Tuesday (iv) none of these

(i) Which word in the passage means the same as “quickly”? (i) rapidly (ii) significantly (iii) native (iv) rare

(j) Which word in the passage is opposite in meaning to “indigenous”? (i) rapidly (ii) significantly (iii) native (iv) rare

Answers: (a) (i) they are the only states to have less than 1,000 people infected with novel coronavirus (b) (iii) Lakshadweep (c) (iii) the numbers are rising at a fast pace at rates higher than the national level (d) (iii) 1 and 3 (e) (ii) July 31 (f) (iv) 12.82 lakh (g) (iii) Tuesday (h) (iii) three days earlier than Tuesday (i) (i) rapidly (j) (iii) native

Australia’s 2019-2020 Bushfire Season was not Normal

• Data from satellite sources assembled by the United Nations Environment Programme’s (UNEP) World Environment Situation Room confirms that the wildfires in Australia in the last two months of 2019 and the first six weeks of 2020 were far from normal. 2019 was the second hottest year on record since 1880, and Australia recorded its warmest temperatures ever in December 2019.
• “Rising temperatures continue to melt records. The past decade was the hottest on record. Scientists tell us that ocean temperatures are now rising at the equivalent of five Hiroshima bombs a second. One million species are in near-term danger of extinction. Our planet is burning,” says United Nations Secretary-General António Guterres.
• “The trend is very clear: 37 of the last 40 years were the warmest recorded since 1880, and the six warmest years recorded were the last six years,” says Pascal Peduzzi, Director of UNEP’s Global Resource Information Database in Geneva. “For those who think Australia is always burning, graphs clearly show that these fires were exceptional.”
• “This service, accessible via the UNEP’s World Environment Situation Room, is provided for all countries at national and provincial levels. It identifies trends in wildfire activity since 2003, when the data first became available and monitoring began. We have sliced and diced the satellite-based data on wildfires worldwide from 2009 to the present day. We analyse the wildfires’ data by month, type of land cover, protected area, province and nation to produce information products,” Peduzzi adds. (Source: UN Environment)

(a) What do the reports confirm about the 2019-20 Australian fires? (i) the fires were not normal (ii) the fires were normal (iii) the fires were natural (iv) data inconclusive

(b) What was the difference in the recorded temperatures in 2019 from the 1880s? (i) 2019 recorded the wettest temperatures since 1880s (ii) 2019 recorded the hottest temperatures ever (iii) 2019 recorded the cooler temperatures than 1880s (iv) 2019 recorded the warmest temperatures since 1880s

(c) What comparison has been made between the rising sea temperatures and Hiroshima? (i) ocean temperatures are rising at the equivalent of three Hiroshima bombs a second (ii) ocean temperatures are rising at the equivalent of five Hiroshima bombs a second (iii) ocean temperatures are rising at the equivalent of five Hiroshima bombs an hour (iv) none of these

(d) Choose the option that lists the CORRECT answers for the following:

“Rising temperatures continue to melt records. The past decade was the hottest on record. Scientists tell us that ocean temperatures are now rising at the equivalent of five Hiroshima bombs a second”. Whose statement is this?

“The trend is very clear: 37 of the last 40 years were the warmest recorded since 1880, and the six warmest years recorded were the last six years.” Whose statement is this?

(i) (1) is from United Nations Secretary and (2) is from the UN President (ii) (1) is from the UN President and (2) is from the UN General Secretary (iii) (1) is from United Nations Secretary and (2) is from the Director of UNEP (iv) (1) is from the UN General Secretary and (2) is from the UN President

(e) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the inherent qualities of climate in the present times. (i) 1 and 3 (ii) 2 and 6 (iii) 3 and 4 (iv) 5 and 6

(f) Which of the following independent data source is NOT PRESENT in the given graph? (i) NASA (ii) NOAA (iii) ISRO (iv) JMA

(g) Choose the option that lists the CORRECT statement. (i) Pascal Peduzzi is the Director of UNEP’s Global Renaissance Information Database (ii) Pascal Peduzzi is the Director of UNO’s Global Resource Information Database (iii) Pascal Peduzzi is the Manager of UNEP’s Global Resource Information Database (iv) Pascal Peduzzi is the Director of UNEP’s Global Resource Information Database

(h) How can you say that the UN is concerned about the rising numbers of coal plants? (i) UNDP Secretary General António Guterres is calling for curbs on new plants (ii) UN Secretary General António Guterres is calling for curbs on new plants (iii) UN Executive Secretary António Guterres is calling for curbs on new plants (iv) UN Secretary General Antony Guterres is calling for curbs on new plants

(i) UNEP’s World Environment Situation Room has been tracking the world temperatures since. (i) 2003 (ii) 2013 (iii) 2000 (iv) 2001

(j) The graph compiled with data from four different sources shows that the global surface temperatures have been _ . (i) steady (ii) falling (iii) on the rise (iv) none of these

(k) Which word in the passage means the same as “collect”? (i) assembled (ii) extinction (iii) exceptional (iv) provincial

(l) Which word in the passage is opposite to the meaning of ‘vague/murky’? (i) assembled (ii) clear (iii) extinction (iv) provincial

(a) (i) the fires were not normal (b) (iv) 2019 recorded the warmest temperatures since 1880s (c) (ii) ocean temperatures are rising at the equivalent of five Hiroshima bombs a second (d) (iii) (1) is from United Nations Secretary and (2) is from the Director of UNEP (e) (i) 1 and 3 (f) (iii) ISRO (g) (iv) Pascal Peduzzi is the Director of UNEP’s Global Resource Information Database (h) (ii) UN secretary general António Guterres is calling for curbs on new plants (i) (i) 2003 (j) (iii) on the rise (k) (i) assembled (l) (ii) clear

Q. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow: [CBSE, 2019]

Hyderabad — The City of Nizams GOLCONDA

1. In the 16th century, when Golconda was the capital of Qutb Shahi Kingdom, it is believed that a shepherd boy came across an idol on the hill. It was then that the Kakatiya dynasty’s ruler built the fort, which is 120 m high. After it was captured by Aurangzeb, the Mughal emperor, the fort fell into ruins.

2. The beautiful ruins of the fort have a story to tell. They make you wonder how the fort may have looked in its days of glory and grandeur. The fort also organises a sound and light show every day and the history of this fort is narrated in such an interesting manner that even a child can understand and enjoy it. The climb to the fort is a difficult one and unless you are physically fit, you should avoid the climb and relax in the gardens below. The view from the top is breath-taking.

3. The next place is Charminar. The literal meaning of the monument is ‘four minarets’. There is a mosque on the second floor. It is said that when the state was hit by severe plague, Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the fifth ruler of the Qutb Shahi dynasty, prayed to end the plague and promised to build a mosque in the very place where he was praying. Thus, Charminar came into being!

4. The walk from the bottom to the top of the monument is a little frightening, owing to the narrowness of the pathway and the steepness of the steps. Once you reach the top, the view of the crowds moving below will surely lift your spirits.

5. Make sure you visit the nearby Laad Bazaar, where there are rows of shops selling the famous Hyderabadi glass bangles and lac bangles.

SALAR JUNG MUSEUM

6. The Salar Jung Museum is the third largest museum in the country and boasts of owning the biggest one-man collection of antiques in the world. A visit to the Salar Jung Museum is a must even if you are not a fan of antique stuff. You can view the Nizam’s collection of textiles, arms, metalware, ivory carvings, Indian bronzes and carpets.

7. The main attraction is definitely the Musical Clock, made by Cook and Kelvy of England. Inside the clock is a timekeeper. Every hour, he comes out and beats a gong as many times as the time indicates. Another attraction of the museum is the Veiled Rebecca, an amazing sculpture made by the Italian sculptor, Giovanni Maria Benzoni.

On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer any ten of the following questions: (any eight) (a) What led to the construction of the Golconda Fort? (b) What led to the destruction of the Golconda Fort? (c) How is the interest in the Fort kept alive? (d) What does the word ‘breath-taking’ in para 2 mean? (e) Why did Quli Qutb Shah build a mosque? (f) How does one feel after reaching the top of Charminar? (g) What is unique about the Salar Jung Museum? (h) What else can one find in this museum apart from antiques? (i) Name the two attractions of the Salar Jung Museum.

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Unseen Passage English: 5 case study-based comprehension passage Reading for Class 10

Here you will find our collection of case study-based comprehension passage English exercises, a new addition to the CBSE curriculum designed to improve your comprehension passage reading skills.

Unseen Passage English 1: Comprehension Passage Reading and Questions

1. The UN’s 2017 International Year tells that sustainable tourism is an important tool for development , most importantly in poor communities and countries. Today sustainability — environmental, social, and economic – is increasingly recognised as the benchmark for all tourism business. As noted by the UN World Tourism Organisation, 57% of international tourist arrivals will be in emerging economies, by 2030. The various ‘Tourism Terms’ are defined as follows:

1.Based on data collected by a survey by Travel Bureau, the following market profile of an ecotourist was constructed:

Age: 35 – 54 years old, although age varied with activity and other factors such as cost. Gender: 50% female and 50% male, although clear differences based on activity were found. Education: 82% were college graduates, a shift in interest in ecotourism from those who have high levels of education to those with less education was also found, indicating an expansion into mainstream markets. Household composition: No major differences were found between general tourists and experienced ecotourists. Party composition: A majority (60%) of experienced ecotourism respondents stated they prefer to travel as a couple, with only 15% stating they preferred to travel with their families, and 13% preferring to travel alone. (experienced ecotourists = Tourists that had been on at least one “ecotourism” oriented trip.) Trip duration: The largest group of experienced ecotourists— (50%) preferred trips lasting 8-14 days. Expenditure: Experienced ecotourists were willing to spend more than general tourists, the largest group (26%). Important elements of trip: Experienced ecotourists top three responses were: (a) wilderness setting, (b) wildlife viewing, (c) hiking/trekking. Motivations for taking next trip: Experienced ecotourists top two responses were (a) enjoy scenery/ nature, (b) new experiences/places.

After reading the comprehension passage, proceed to the questions that test your understanding.

(i) In the line “……….. recognised as the benchmark”, the word “benchmark” does not refer to: (a) a basis for something. (b) the criterion required. (c) the ability to launch something new. (d) a standard point of reference.

(ii) The World Tourism Organisation of the UN, in an observation, shared that: (a) emerging economies of the world will gain 57% of their annual profits from international tourists. (b) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in the next decade. (c) many international tourists in 2030 will be from developing countries. (d) barely any tourist in the next decade shall travel from an economically strong nation to a weak one.

(iii) Choose the option that lists the correct answers for the following: 1. Asha Mathew, an NRI, loves animals and wishes to travel to places that safeguard their rights and inculcate awareness of their rights. What kind of tourist is she? 2. Gurdeep Singh from UK is an environmental scientist and has always chosen to travel to places that are examples of a symbiotic relationship between man and nature. What kind of tourist is he? (a) (1) is an ecotourist and (2) is a geotourist. (b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist. (c) (1) is a sustainable tourist and (2) is a pro-poor tourist. (d) (1) is a geotourist and (2) is a responsible tourist.

(iv) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the inherent qualities of geotourism.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 5 and 6 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 5

(v) In the market profile of an ecotourist, the information on gender indicates that: (a) female ecotourists were more than the male ecotourists. (b) the activity preferences were varied in females and males. (c) the choice of things to do on a trip were quite similar for both the genders. (d) male ecotourists were frequent travellers.

(vi) According to the survey, one of the most powerful driving forces leading experienced ecotourism to invest in new trips was: (a) setting up work stations in new places. (b) the chance to go camping in the wild. (c) competing with other ecotourists as frequent travellers. (d) the opportunity to travel to new places.

(vii) Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TRUE. (a) Economically backward countries will benefit from sustainable tourism. (b) The tourism business currently recognises sustainability as an important factor. (c) Emerging economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future. (d) The sustainability factor in tourism is a significant means for development.

(viii) The survey clearly showed that the age range of ecotourists: (a) remained the same for the choice of tourist attractions to visit. (b) changed with the monetary requirements for the trip. (c) fluctuated due to male-female ratio. (d) was constant across various features of the trip.

(ix) The education aspect in the market profile of the ecotourist revealed that ecotourism was no more limited to the small group of highly educated travellers. (True/False) (x) According to the survey conducted by the Travel Bureau, the total percentage of experienced ecotourist who did not prefer to travel was………….

 Answers:

(i)(c) the ability to launch something new. (ii) (b) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in the next decade. (iii)(b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist. (iv) (c) 2 and 4 (v) (b) the activity preferences were varied in females and males. (vi) (d) the opportunity to travel to new places. (vii) (c) Emerging economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future. (viii) (b) changed with the monetary requirements for the trip. (ix) True (x) 75%

Download the Above Passage in PDF (Printable)

Unseen Passage English 2: Analyze and Answer

1. More than 87,000 healthcare workers have been infected with Covid-19, with just six states – Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Delhi, West Bengal and Gujarat – accounting for three-fourths (around 74%) of the case burden and over 86% of the 573 deaths due to the infection, official data showed. Maharashtra alone, with the highest number of over 7.3 lakh confirmed Covid cases so far, accounts for around 28% of the infected healthcare workers and over 60% of the total deaths, according to the data. 2. While Maharashtra, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu had tested over one lakh healthcare workers each till August 28, Karnataka reported only 12,260 infected healthcare workers – almost half the burden in Maharashtra. Tamil Nadu reported 11,169 cases that included doctors, nurses and Asha workers. The three states together accounted for 55% of the total cases among health workers. Risk to frontline workers can jeopardise India’s Covid fight – The three states also reported the highest number of deaths in healthcare professionals, though with a wide gap between Maharashtra and the other two. While Maharashtra reported 292 deaths among healthcare workers, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu had 46 and 49 deaths, respectively.

Covid-19 Cases till August 2020

3. A large number of infections and even deaths of healthcare workers in particular states is being viewed with concern by officials and public health experts, who say risks to frontline workers can jeopardise India’s fight against the pandemic. The issue, discussed in a review meeting headed by the cabinet secretary on Thursday, saw the Centre cautioning states about the need to protect a crucial resource. The possible factors responsible for high infections, officials said, were lax infection control in hospitals and the need for stringent containment measures in areas where health professionals reside to safeguard them. 4. Despite the high number of cases, the government has received only 143 claims since April under the 50 lakh Covid-19 insurance scheme for healthcare workers engaged in Covid mitigation activities. Official sources said the wide gap between the number of deaths and claims could be because all the casualties may not be eligible under the scheme. Besides, the claims are a bit slow in coming as families of the dead take time to apply and do the required paperwork.  5. ‘Solidarity with health workers cannot be met with mere words of encouragement but by concerted efforts to strengthen the health workforce. Safety net for their families should be provided including a term insurance cover of overt 2 crore, with the government as sole guarantee,’ said Giridhar Babu, epidemiologist at the Public Health Foundation of India. ‘Protecting healthcare workers is of paramount importance to make sure we have a large enough force to take care of patients who need their services’ said Dr H Sudarshan Ballal, chairman, Manipal Hospitals, who said such workers may be at risk because of a large number of asymptomatic patients and lack of proper use of PPEs.                                    ( Source : The Times of India/health Ministry)

(i) In the line “… risks to frontline workers”, the term ‘frontline workers’ does NOT refer to: (a) healthcare workers (b) police (c) cleanliness workers (d) teachers

(ii) Which state of India was on the top in terms of confirmed COVID-19 cases? (a) Karnataka (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Delhi (d) Maharashtra

(iii) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the factors responsible for high infection in healthcare professionals. 1. Careless infection control in hospital  2. Negligency by healthcare professionals  3. Lack of stringest containment measure  4. The lack of healthcare professionals  (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

(iv) How many healthcare workers, infected with COVID-19, were there in Karnataka till August 2020? (a) 11,169 (b) 12,260 (c) 1,07,100 (d) 15,213

(v) Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TRUE. (a) Maharashtra was the worst sufferer of Covid-19. (b) Karnataka had less number of Covid-19 cases as compared to Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. (c) The deaths of healthcare workers are disregarded by officials. (d) Most of the families of deceased healthcare workers received रु50 lakh under Covid-19 insurance scheme.

(vi) How many claims has the government received since April 2020 under the ? 50 lakh COVID-19 insurance scheme for healthcare workers engaged in COVID-19 alleviation activities? (a) 49 claims (b) 51 claims (c) 46 claims (d) 143 claims

(vii) ‘Healthcare workers’ refers to………….  (viii) On how many healthcare workers have COVID-19 tests been conducted in Punjab? (ix) Lax infection control in hospitals is the main reason for high infection among healthcare workers. (True/False)                                                                    (x) What does the term ‘concerted efforts’ in pars 5 mean?

(i)(d) teachers (ii) (d) Maharashtra (iii)(c) 1 and 3 (iv) (b) 12,260 (v) (c) The deaths of healthcare workers are disregarded by officials. (vi) (d) 143 claims (vii) doctors, nurses, Asha workers, etc. (viii) On 13,141 healthcare workers COVID-19 tests have been conducted in Punjab. (ix) True (x) The term ‘concerted efforts’ means ‘collective efforts’.

Unseen Passage English 3: Reading Comprehension Exercise

1. Natural calamities generally bring death and disaster on a large scale. Tsunami waves, earthquakes, floods, droughts and epidemics have taken a heavy toll of human lives, particularly the children. The children who survive these disasters suffer the most. They are condemned to lead a life full of misery, insecurity, want and fear. Only the concerted efforts of the Government and the agencies involved in disaster management can help them lead normal lives again.

2. The natural calamities have tragically affected the lives of about 15000 children in recent years in India. The tsunami waves and earthquakes created havoc on a large scale. About 5430 children became homeless due to the tsunami and 5438 were the victims of the earthquakes. Floods displaced 2602 and droughts affected 2036 children. Epidemics affected 1313 children. Out of these figures, 1093 children live constantly in general fear; 110 children have withdrawn socially; 20 children have become deaf and 16 of them can’t speak any more. More than 450 children can’t sleep at night while 1164 can’t concentrate on anything. The tragedy is that 21 of them have become blind, 43 asthmatic and 276 are still in shock. 566 suffer from frequent headache and stomachache. About 850 children fear water and sound and 117 have refused to go to school.

3. Disaster management programmes have not Epidemic proved up to the mark and up to the task. The Government and the concerned agencies should provide comprehensive aids and help to the survivors, particularly the children. They must provide nutritious food, clothes, shelters and medical aids to them. MI efforts should be made to wipe out the scars left by these disasters.

(i) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the statements that are TRUE.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 5 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4

(ii) What can make the lives of the children , affected with various disasters, normal? (a) The concerted efforts of the government. (b) The concerted efforts of the agencies involved in disaster management. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(iii) As per the histogram, the most disastrous natural calamity for children is: (a) Earthquake (b) Tsunami (c) Flood (d) Drought

(iv) The number of children suffering from frequent headache and stomach ache is: (a) 839 (b) 1,164 (c) 110 (d) 566

(v) Who should be responsible for providing the disaster affected children with nutritious food , clothes, shelters and medical aids? (a) The Government (b) The concerned agencies (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(vi) Which of these are the examples of natural calamities? (a) Floods (b) Tsunamis (c) Earthquakes (d) All of these

(vii) Who among the following are the worst sufferers of natural calamities? (a) Elderly people (b) Youth (c) Children (d) Adults

(viii) Natural calamities generally cause ………. on a large scale. (ix) The role of Disaster Management Programmes in resolving the problems of natural calamities is very bad. (True/False) (x) The antonym of ‘occasional’ in pare 2 is………… .

(i)(b) 2 and 5 (ii) (c) Both (a) and (b) (iii)(b) Tsunami (iv) (d) 566 (v) (c) Both (a) and (b) (vi) (d) All of these (vii) (c) Children (viii) death and disaster (ix) False (x) Frequent

Case Study-Based Comprehension Passage – 4

1. Over 80% of fatalities in road accidents in India happened due to speeding and dangerous or driving a comparative analysis of National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) data since 2014 shows. While this careless corroborates the popular perception of how people drive on the road in a country where getting a driving licence is often said to b . be too easy. Experts said most of the fatal accidents are recorded by police under speeding and dangerous driving categories in the FIR as there are no other provisions in the Indian Penal Code (IPC) for such offences. 2. According to the latest NCRB report on accidental deaths, 83.2% of road fatalities were on account of these two types of violations and the rest 16.8% of fatalities were due to reasons including drunk driving, bad weather conditions and mechanical defect. In 2014, when such causes of fatal crashes were first compiled, 89.4% of the deaths were due to speeding and dangerous or careless driving as per the police records and this was the highest ever. 3. “We face a host of challenges ranging from poor system of issuing driving licences to almost zero scientific investigation of fatal crashes, which are provided in the law. Most of our national highways and state highways, which pass through villages, have no pedestrian crossings. On the top of this, in all fatal cases, police automatically registers them under section 279 (negligent driving resulting death) of the IPC,” said mad safety expert Rohit Baluja, who has been a regular guest faculty at Indian Police Academy, Hyderabad. 4. Confirming this, traffic adviser in Punjab, government, Navdeep Asija said in case of all fatal accidents, the provisions of IPC are slapped. “In IPC, any crime or offence has to be lodged against a human being and hence there cannot be any charge against a road, vehicle or any other object. That’s why police data may not indicate the exact reason of crashes. But it is also a fact that violation of traffic rules is rampant on roads and only electronic surveillance can put a check on them,” he added.

5.Baluja said there is a need to define what is dangerous driving and the norms for fixing speed limits. “In Delhi, the speed limit is same across major roads, Year residential areas and markets during day lean time and at night as well. No authorities are held responsible for deficiencies on their part,” he pointed out. Though the amended Motor Vehicle Act has included a provision to hold road owning agencies, contractors and consultants in case of fatal accidents due to faulty road construction or design, the government is yet to notify the process for this.                                                  ( Source: Times of India)

(i) Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists accurate speed limit rules authorised in Delhi. 1. Different speed limits for major roads and residential areas. 2. Same speed limit for major roads and residential areas. 3. Same speed limit during day time and at night as well. (a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 2 and 3 (d) Only 2

(ii) According to the latest NCRB report, what percentage of total fatal road accidents occur due to high speed driving and rash driving? (a) 16.8% (b) 32.3% (c) 27.5% (d) 83.2%

(iii) Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TURE. (a) Police data may not indicate the exact reason of crashes. (b) Fatal accidents may occur due to faulty road construction. (c) Violation of traffic rules is hardly observed on roads. (d) IPC stands for Indian Penal Code.

(iv) In the line “……… the norms for fixing speed”, the word “norm” DOES NOT refer to: (a) a model (b) a standard (c) usual (d) exception

(v) As per the amended Motor Vehicle Act, who among these are also held responsible for fatal road accidents? (a) Road contractors (b) Road consultants (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(vi) According to NCRB, which of these factors is/ are responsible for fatal road accidents? (a) High speed driving (b) Rash driving (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(vii) In which year were the causes of fatal crashes first compiled? (viii) According to the traffic adviser in Punjab government, any crime of offence must be lodged against………..  (ix) The data displays that the largest number of road accidents took place in 2016. (True/False) (x) Which word in para 4 is similar in meaning to ‘observation’?

(i)(c) Both 2 and 3 (ii) (d) 83.2% (iii)(c) Violation of traffic rules is hardly observed on roads. (iv) (d) exception (v) (c) Both (a) and (b) (vi) (c) Both (a) and (b) (vii) The causes of fatal crashes first compiled in 2014. (viii) human being only (ix) False (x) Surveillance

Unseen Passage English 5: Reading Comprehension Exercise

1. There are visible signs of economic rejuvenation since the second half of May, with the second wave of the pandemic abating in most parts of the country and state governments lifting restrictions in phases, a finance ministry report said on 10 August 2021 while calling for sustaining the vaccination progress and the need for Covid-appropriate behaviour. “The receding of India’s second wave, along with rapid progress in vaccination, has set the stage to further accelerate economic recovery. The movement of high frequency indicators in July clearly point towards a broad-based economic revival,” said the finance ministry’s monthly economic report for July, adding that these signs resonate with the fact that the economic impact of the second wave is expected to be muted. 2. It said PMI manufacturing sharply rebounded to be in expansionary zone across output and input sub-components of the index. Marking swift economic recovery, GST collection has reclaimed its ‘ 1 lakh crore-plus territory in July, signifying increased business and consumer activity. Rail freight at 112.7 MT in July hit a record for the month and registered 18.3% growth (year-on-year) and 13.2% rise compared to pre-Covid July 2019. The surge in economic activity is further corroborated by trends in Kharif sowing, fertiliser sales, power consumption, vehicle registrations, highway toll collections, e-way bills and digital transactions, said the report. “Latest available data on growth of eight core industries, auto sales, tractor sales, port traffic, air passenger traffic, also indicate sequential improvement from the contraction induced by the second wave,” it further added.

3. “At this juncture, the economy and society are at a crucial inflection point where sustenance of economic recovery, vaccination progress and Covid-19 appropriate behavioural strategies are needed in close synergy with each other.” It said that having antibodies reduces the probability of acquiring serious illnesses, as is borne by studies. So, any subsequent waves are expected to be mild in terms of severity of disease.

[ Source : Times of India )]

(i) Why do you think the Indian economy is reviving now? (a) The second wave of pandemic is coming down. (b) Restrictions imposed due to Covid-19 are gradually lifted. (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(ii) In order to control and prevent Covid-19 cases, which of these is must? (a) Strictly following Covid-19 protocols (b) maintaining the vaccination progress (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)

(iii)  The term ‘Covid-appropriate behaviour’ refers to: (a) maintaining appropriate social distancing (b) wearing mask when going out of home (c) washing hands with soap and water and applying sanitizer frequently (d) all of the above

(iv) What does the line “… the economic impact of the second wave is expected to be muted” mean? (a) The impact of the second wave Covid-19 pandemic on economy would be very disastrous. (b) The adverse impact of the second wave Covid-19 pandemic on economy would be to a very less extent. (c) The impact of the second wave Covid-19 pandemic on economy would be to a large extent. (d) The consequence of the second wave Covid-19 pandemic would be positive for economy.

(v) Based on the passage, what would be the impact of imminent wave Covid-19 pandemic in terms of severity of disease? (a) very serious (b) enormous (c) mild (d) deadly

(vi) What does the GST collection of rupees 1 lakh crore plus territory in July 2021 reflect? (a) Nominal business and consumer activity were done in July 2021. (b) The condition of business and consumer activity was very bad in July 2021. (c) Decreased business and consumer activity took place in July 2021. (d) Increased business and consumer activity took place in July 2021.

(vii) Which one of these is an example of the term ‘year-on-year’? (a) In March 2016, Aditi had received his electricity bill of 1540 and in May 2017, he received his electricity bill of रु450. (b) In February 2020, I had earned 220,000, but in March 2020, I earned रु 15,000. (c) In June 2020, Aryan had received his electricity bill of रु 1450 and in June 2021, he received the same supposed amount of his electricity bill. (d) In May 2020, Sneha had spent 225,000 on household expenditure but in August 2020, she spent रु 30,000 on household expenditure.

(viii) Kiaan was vaccinated twice against Covid-19 virus. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Kiaan according to the passage? (a) Covid-19 virus cannot affect him at all now. (b) He may even acquire serious illness if he is infected by Covid-19 virus. (c) If he is infected by Covid-19, he may become ill but his illness cannot be very serious. (d) If he is infected by Covid-19, he may even die of it.

(ix) According to the Bar graph, approximately on the area of 600 lakh hectares the work of Kharif sowing was done altogether by 6 August 2021 in our country. (True/False) (x) Which word in pare 3 is the synonym of ‘ensuing’?

(i)(c) Both (a) and (b) (ii) (c) both (a) and (b) (iii)(d) all of the above (iv) (b) The adverse impact of the second wave Covid-19 pandemic on economy would be to a very less extent. (v) (c) mild (vi) (d) Increased business and consumer activity took place in July 2021. (vii) (c) In June 2020, Aryan had received his electricity bill of 21450 and in June 2021, he received the same supposed amount of his electricity bill. (viii) (c) If he is infected by Covid-19, he may become ill but his illness cannot be very serious. (ix) False (x) Subsequent

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Case Based Factual Passage for Class 10

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In this post, I’m sharing with you a “ Case Based Factual Passage for Class 10 ” that’s often found in the CBSE Class 10th Board Exam. If you want to do well in English, you should practise this part a lot. It’s crucial for the upcoming CBSE board exam in 2023-24. Writing skills is very important for board exams.

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Read the passage given below.

1. There are innumerable villages in India which have fewer than 500 residents. Many people from the other cities in India head to one of these sanctuaries to wash away all the hardships of an ultramodern life.

2. With a population of just 289, the tribal village of Ha is the smallest named place in the country which is located at an altitude of 4,780 ft. in the Kurung Kumey district of Arunachal Pradesh. The village is known for its brilliant natural beauty and the Menga caves which are dedicated to Lord Shiva.

3. Located about 27 km from Keylong in Himachal Pradesh, the village of Shansha has a population of 320 people in 72 houses. The hamlet is located close to the Tandi Kishtwar road which is generally a pit stop for those adventure-seeking individuals who ride through this dangerous route. The hamlet of Shansha is home to a greenhouse which is located at a height of 10,000 ft. and provides aid to the locals living and working in this highly challenging terrain.

Factual Passage for Class 10

4. One might think the entire state of Goa is filled with a bunch of beaches and shacks, but there is another side of the tiny state which is known for its isolated villages. Xelpem, also known as Shelpem, is an example of one such place which is located on the banks of Salaulim river and has a population of just 255.

5. The village of Sankri in Uttarakhand is the base camp of many treks and is well known for being the last village which has a market on the way to the Har ki Dun Trek, Kedarkantha. The hamlet has just 77 homes out of which three are small guest houses and has a population of about 270 people. Most families welcome the trekkers to stay at their homes as well.

6. One amongst the most scenic and hidden gems of Nagaland is the village of Nitoi. The village has a population of about 402 people and boasts of an 80% literacy rate even in its small population. The small hamlet can be reached from Kiphire which is an 8-hour drive from Kohima.

• Important Passage for 10 CBSE Board

Case Based Factual Passage for Class 10 mcq

On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following questions.

(1) The purpose of this passage is to provide awareness regarding the _____. Choose the correct option. (a) tiny towns and cities in India (b) small villages and hamlets in India (c) small hamlets and cities in India (d) isolated tribes in India

(2) Select the option that is true for the two statements given below. (i) Shansha has a population of 320 people in 72 houses. (ii) The hamlet of Shansha is home to a greenhouse. (a) (i) contradicts (ii). (b) (ii) is the reason for (i). (c) (i) is independent of (ii). (d) (ii) is the result of (i).

(3) Select the option that gives the correct meaning of the following statement. “Most families welcome the trekkers to stay at their homes as well.” (a) The hamlet consists of only guest houses for trekkers. (b) People from Sankri village aren’t fond of any visitors. (c) The hamlet has just 77 homes with a population of about 270 people. (d) People from Sankri village keep their doors open for guests.

(4) According to the passage, the greenhouse in Shansha is essential for the people because______. (a) it provides aid to the trekkers living and working in this highly challenging terrain. (b) it is the only source of food in the mountains. (c) it provides aid to the locals at a height of 10,000 ft. in this highly challenging terrain. (d) it is a major tourist attraction of that village.

(5) Select the option listing what the given sentence refers to. ‘The village has a population of about 402 people and boasts of an 80% literacy rate even in its small population.’ (i) The village has a population of 402 literate people. (ii) The population of the village is 80% illiterate. (iii) The 80% of the population is not illiterate. (iv) The population of the village is limited to 402 individuals. (v) The village boasts high literacy rate even in its small population. (a) (i), (ii) and (v) (b) (ii), (iv) and (v) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii), (iv) and (v)

(6) The Menga caves from the village of Ha in Arunachal Pradesh are dedicated to which deity? (a) Lord Shiva (b) Lord Krishna (c) Lord Ganesha (d) Lord Vishnu

• Unseen Passage for Class 10

Factual Passage for Class 10 with Answers

(7) This passage lists an example of the tiny villages in India where _______. Select the correct option. (a) people come for good business opportunities (b) people come to wash away all their sins in the holy pilgrimage sites (c) people come to escape all the hardships of an ultra-modern life (d) people have just discovered their existence and are not yet listed on maps

(8) Choose the correct option to answer the following: According to paragraph 4, ‘One might think the entire state of Goa is filled with a bunch of beaches and shacks.’ This is so because: (a) Goa is famous for its small naturally scenic villages. (b) Goa is generally advertised as such in popular media. (c) not much is known about the beaches and shacks of Goa. (d) people don’t care about the natural diversity in Goa.

(9) The tribal village of Ha, the smallest named place in the country, is located at an altitude of…… (a) 4,280 ft. (b) 4,580 ft. (c) 4,780 ft. (d) 4,980 ft.

(10) The village of Nitoi is described as_______ (a) scenic and hidden gem of Himachal. (b) filled with a bunch of beaches and shacks. (c) a pit stop for adventure-seeking individuals. (d) scenic and hidden gem of Nagaland.

(11) Which word in the passage means ‘distress’? (a) dangerous (b) hardships (c) innumerable (d) isolated

(12) Which word in the passage is opposite to the meaning of ‘unstimulating’? (a) working (b) literacy (c) sanctuaries (d) challenging

Factual Passage with Answer & Explanation

1. Ans. (b) small villages and hamlets in India 2. Ans. (c) (1) is independent of (2). 3. Ans. (d) People from Sankri village keep their doors open for guests. 4. Ans. (c) it provides aid to the locals at a height of 10,000 ft. in this highly challenging terrain. 5. Ans. (d) (3), (4) and (5) 6. Ans. (a) Lord Shiva 7. Ans. (c) people come to escape all the hardships of an ultra-modern life 8. Ans. (b) Goa is generally advertised as such in popular media. 9. Ans. (c) 4,780 ft. 10. Ans. (d) scenic and hidden gem of Nagaland. 11. Ans. (b) hardships 12. Ans. (d) challenging

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CBSE MCQ for Class 10 English Case Based Factual Passage Free PDF

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CBSE Class 10 English Question Paper 2021 (Term-I) with Solutions

May 20, 2024 by Bhagya

Reviewing CBSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 English with Solutions and CBSE Class 10 English Question Paper 2021 (Term-I) can help students develop effective time management strategies.

Time allowed: 2 hours Maximum marks: 40

General Instructions: Read the instructions very carefully and strictly follow them:

• This question paper contains 60 questions out of which 50 questions are to be attempted.
• This question paper consists of three Sections – Section A, Section B and Section C.
• Section A – Reading contains 18 questions. Attempt any 14 questions from Q. No. 1 to 18.
• Section B – Writing & Grammar-contains 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions from Q. No. 19 to 30.
• Section C – Literature contains 30 questions. Attempt any 26 questions from Q. No. 31 to 60.
• First 14 questions in Section A, 10 questions in Section B and 26 questions in Section C will be evaluated.
• All questions carry equal marks.
• There is no negative marking.

Section A (Reading)

I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions/complete the statements that follow by choosing the most appropriate options from the given ones: (any eight)

In most societies that have any glimmering of civilization, a person accused of wrong doing is given at least a nominal chance of proving his innocence. The Romans had a highly sophisticated/comprehensive system of courts and the members of their legal profession were well educated but the Saxons who followed them to rule Britain used rougher methods.

From about the sixth century A.D. to the eleventh the majority of the trials were in the form of cruel physical torture (carrying a piece of red hot iron, stepping barefoot and blindfold across a floor covered with red hot coals or sometimes by a gentler method of oath – swearing. The accused was ordered to bring to the Saxon authorities, a police officer or a priest could be persuaded to swear on oath or still a number of persons who would say that the accused was of good character and thus innocent. The number of persons who swore depended on the crime. A noble/a landlord or a priest counted for up to half a dozen ordinary peasants. As almost everyone lived in small villages, where almost everyone knew everyone else, and very few would risk telling a lie on oath (the people were mostly religious), the truth was generally told. If the accused could not produce enough oath helpers, he was found guilty and punished.

In the eleventh century the Normans introduced trial by battle in certain cases. The accused and the accuser fought with special weapons until one was dead or surrendered. It was believed that God would know the guilty and give the innocent the power to win. The whole idea became ridiculous when both the parties were allowed to hire champions who would fight on their behalf. It seemed likely whoever could pay the more for a stronger professional fighter stood a good chance of winning and judged innocent. This may sound unfair to us but there is a parallel with a wealthy person today who can hire a costly and brilliant barrister to defend him.

In the early middle ages when England was a land of small villages remote from each other, crime tended to be basic and direct: beating up, theft, sex and murder being the main offences. But as towns and manufacturing and commerce grew, the possibilities for cheating and fraud soared. The whole organisation of society became more complex and opened the door to a world of more sophisticated wickedness. With no regular police force, spies and informers were offered rewards when they brought in criminals.

1. England (or Britain) turn by turn came under the rule of: (a) Saxons; Romans; Normans (b) Normans; Saxons; Romans (c) Romans; Saxons; Normans (d) Normans; Romans; Saxons Answer: (c) Romans; Saxons; Normans

2. The article describes: (a) the development of the system of justice in England. (b) Civilized societies and justice. (c) Justice vs. Civilisation. (d) Rule of Justice in England. Answer: (a) the development of the system of justice in England.

3. Study the following statements: (A) Romans were proud of their judicial system. (B) There is not much difference between the Norman and modern system of justice. (a) (A) is right and (B) is wrong. (b) (B) is right and (A) is wrong. (c) Both (A) and (B) are right. (d) Both (A) and (B) are wrong. Answer: (c) Both (A) and (B) are right.

4. Match the following: A. Romans – (i) A priest to swear for the accused B. Saxons – (ii) Highly paid lawyers can win a case C. Modern – (iii) Educated judges and lawyers D. Normans – (iv) The winner in a battle declared innocent (a) A – (iv); B – (ii); C – (i); D – (iii) (b) A – (iii); B – (i); C – (ii); D – (iv) (c) A – (i); B – (iii); C – (iv); D – (ii) (d) A – (ii); B- (i); C – (iii); D – (iv) Answer: (b) A – (iii); B – (i); C – (ii); D – (iv)

5. Study the following statements: (A) In a trial by battle, money played a main role. (B) God helped the innocent win the battle.

(a) (A) is right and (B) is wrong. (b) (B) is right and (A) is wrong. (c) Both (A) and (B) are right and (A) was the conclusion. (d) Both (A) and (B) are right and (A) was not the conclusion. Answer: (a) (A) is right and (B) is wrong.

6. Study the following statements: (A) Saxon system of trial was nobler than that of the Romans. (B) Saxon system had two aspects – rough and noble. (C) The rich Saxons could hire champions to argue their case. (D) Even an innocent person would be held guilty if enough people did not swear for him.

Which of the following options represents true statements: (a) (A) and (B) are both right. (b) (B) and (C) are both wrong. (c) (C) and (A) are both right. (d) (B) and (D) are both right. Answer: (d) (B) and (D) are both right.

7. Study the following statements: (A) Earlier England comprised small villages each with a small population. (B) Crimes like cheating and fraud were rare.

(a) (A) is an assertion and (B) is the response. (b) (B) is an assertion and (A) is the response. (c) Both (A) and (B) are unrelated assertions. (d) Both (A) and (B) are responses to some other assertions. Answer: (a) (A) is an assertion and (B) is the response.

8. Which of the following statements are true? The rich have always enjoyed an advantage in the judicial system because (A) they were physically strong, so would win the trial by fighting. (B) they could hire the strongest champion. (C) they can hire the best lawyers. (D) they could persuade the priest to swear on their behalf.

(a) (A) and (B) (b) (B) and (C) (c) (C) and (A) (d) (B) and (D) Answer: (b) (B) and (C)

9. Which of the following statements are NOT true? (A) In the quest for justice the guilty often went unpunished. (B) For seven hundred years from the sixth century trial was mostly rough. (C) Swearing value of a priest was equal to a dozen ordinary peasants. (D) Use of champions in a trial by battle finds an equivalent in the modern times.

(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (C) (c) (C) and (D) (d) (A) and (B) Answer: (b) (B) and (C)

10. ‘any glimmering of civilisation’ ‘Glimmering’ in the above expression has been used as a metaphor. Glimmering stands for — (a) a slight suggestion (b) a great hope (c) some fear (d) a little confidence Answer: (b) a great hope

II. Read the passage given below and answer the questions/complete the statements that follow by choosing the most appropriate options out of the given ones: (any six)

Around 194 millions birds and 29 million mammals are thought to be killed each year on European roads, according to a new study that has ranked the most vulnerable species. The research has found that the species killed most often were not necessarily the endangered species. This means action to preserve wildlife when new roads are built risks being targeted at the wrong species based on current methods. Road densities in Europe are among the world’s highest, with 50% of the continent within 1.5 km of a paved road or railway. Roads are therefore a significant threat to wildlife, and evidence shows deaths on them could even cause some species to disappear completely.

Despite this, the long-term protection of species is not currently considered when assessing the impact of new roads on wildlife, meaning we risk giving support to only the endangered species, doing nothing to help those most at risk. A better understanding of which species are most vulnerable to roads is therefore important if we are to take a more effective action of protection.

A research team based in Lisbon calculated road-kill rates for 423 bird species and 212 mammal species. They found that small animals with high population densities and which mature at an early age were most likely to be killed on roads. Nocturnal mammals and birds with a diet of plants and seeds were also shown to have higher death rates.

The study also used the road-kill surveys to rank the bird and mammal species whose long-term survival was most threatened by road-kill. The hazel grouse and ground squirrel were found to be the most at risk of local extinction. Both are common in Europe but are classified as species of Least Concern Red list of Threatened Species.

The most vulnerable animals classified as threatened by IUCN were the red-knobbed coot, Balcan mole and Podolian mole. The study revealed that road-kill hotspots were not the areas with the highest population of endangered species. For example, house sparrows had a high road-kill rate (2.7 per km/year) but were ranked 420th of 423 bird species for vulnerability. Conversely, the hazel grouse had a low predicted road kill-rate (0.2 per km/ yr) but was most vulnerable of all birds studied.

11. Study the following statements: (A) Roads are killers for animals. (B) Both birds and mammals are killed on roads. (C) Species most killed are necessarily the endangered ones.

(a) (A) is correct and (B) is false. (b) (B) is correct and (C) is false. (c) (A) and (B) both are correct. (d) (C) is correct and (A) is false. Answer: (c) (A) and (B) both are correct.

12. Study the following statements: (A) Roads have covered 50% of land in Europe. (B) Road traffic causes a great risk to wild life. (C) Some species can survive all kinds of traffic on roads.

(a) (A) is correct and (B) is false. (b) (B) is correct and (C) is false. (c) (C) is correct and (A) is false. (d) (A) and (B) both are false. Answer: (b) (B) is correct and (C) is false.

13. Which of the following statements is correct according to the passage? (a) While planning roads we should see which species to protect. (b) We are doing a lot to protect those most at risk. (c) 50% of Europe is covered only with roads. (d) Small animals even with low population density are most at risk. Answer: (a) While planning roads we should see which species to protect.

14. Which of the following statements is correct according to the passage? (a) More mammals than birds are killed on the roads. (b) Small animals generally keep away from roads. (c) Number of road-kills depends upon the population density of small animals. (d) Animals that come out only at night are saved. Answer: (c) Number of road-kills depends upon the population density of small animals.

15. (A) The surveys ranked the road-kill rate of birds and mammals. (B) The finding puts grouse and squirrel at great risk. (a) (A) is an assertion and (B) is the response. (b) (B) is an assertion and (A) is the response. (c) Both (A) and (B) are false. (d) Both (A) and (B) are unrelated to each other. Answer: (a) (A) is an assertion and (B) is the response.

16. Hazel grouse and ground squirrel are classified as species of least concern. The statement is: (a) a logical conclusion (b) a piece of good news (c) ironical (d) a pleasant surprise Answer: (c) ironical

17. The title of the study should be: (a) A Birds and Mammals survey (b) Road-kills (c) Road density in Europe (d) Need for conservation Answer: (b) Road-kills

18. The purpose of the study is: (a) how to prevent road-kills. (b) to see who is more at risk on the roads, (c) how to plan better roads. (d) to estimate the number of road accident victims. Answer: (b) to see who is more at risk on the roads,

Section B (Grammar and Writing)

III. Complete the following statements by filling in the blanks with the help of given options: (any five)

19. I don’t see why you ……………… borrow his cycle. You have one of your own. (a) Should (b) Could (c) May (d) Might Answer: (a) Should

20. My family ………………. in Chennai for five years now. (a) has lived (b) has been living (c) had lived (d) lived Answer: (b) has been living

21. …………. the lefter arrive in your absence, would you like me to forward it to you? (a) If (b) Could (c) Should (d) Might Answer: (c) Should

22. If he came late he …………. be punished. (a) will (b) shall (c) should (d) would Answer: (d) would

23. By the time we reach the school the bell ……………… (a) will be ringing (b) will have rung (c) would have been ringing (d) would have rung Answer: (b) will have rung

24. Three months ago I ……………. a student of this school. (a) was (b) had been (c) have been (d) could be Answer: (a) was

IV. You are Arun. Near the gate of your colony there is a motor mechanic’s workshop. Many cars are parked outside on the pavement and even beyond. Repair work goes on. The surroundings have become filthy; pedestrians are put to trouble. Arun decides to write a letter of complaint, of course, for wider audience/readership. (any five)

25. The letter will be addressed to: (a) The Sanitary Inspector (b) The Municipal Commissioner (c) State Minister of Health (d) Editor of a local newspaper Answer: (d) Editor of a local newspaper

26. Subject of the letter should be: (a) Problems caused to pedestrians (b) Inconvenience caused by the next door workshop (c) Insanitary conditions at the colony gate (d) A health hazard Answer: (c) Insanitary conditions at the colony gate

27. Arun decides to write this letter as: (a) he has a personal problem with the owner of the workshop. (b) a matter of social concern (c) he intends to contest the next municipal election. (d) he is very health conscious. Answer: (b) a matter of social concern

28. He will arrange the contents of the letter in this way: A. noisy surroundings B. action requested C. garbage littered D. public inconvenience E. the health hazard F. location of the workshop

(a) B, A, C, E, D, F (b) F, D, A, C, E, B (c) A, C, E, B, D, F (d) F, C, E, D, A, B Answer: (b) F, D, A, C, E, B

29. What kind of action would Arun suggest? (a) Fine to be imposed on the workshop (b) Notice on lack of cleanliness to be issued (c) Workshop to be shifted (d) Periodic visits of the Health Inspector Answer: (c) Workshop to be shifted

30. The correct closing of the letter should be: (a) Your’s faithfully (b) Yours faithfully (c) Yours truly (d) Your’s truly Answer: (c) Yours truly

Section C (Literature)

This section has sub-sections – V, VI, VII, VIII and IX. There are a total of 30 questions in this section. Attempt any 26 questions from the sub-sections V to IX.

V. Read the extract given below and attempt the question complete the statements that follow:

For the first twenty-four hours Mijbil was neither hostile nor friendly; he was simply aloof and indifferent, choosing to sleep on the floor as far from my bed as possible. The second night Mijbil came on to my bed in the small hours and remained asleep in the crook of my knees until the servant brought tea in the morning, and during the day he began to lose his apathy and take a keen, much too keen, interest in his surroundings. I made a body-belt for him and took him on a lead to the bathroom, where for half an hour he went wild with joy in the water, plunging and rolling in it, shooting up and down the length of the bathtub underwater, and making enough slosh and splash for a hippo.

31. “Mijbil was neither hostile nor friendly; he was simply aloof and indifferent…” From the actions of the given set of friends, choose the person who’s behaviour is likely to resemble Mijbil’s. (a) Akanksha rudely tells her best friend to stop calling. (b) Piyush was amicable since the day he walked into his new classroom. (c) Rishabh became nasty as soon as he started earning money. (d) Urvashi was distant for a while after losing her grandmother. Answer: (d) Urvashi was distant for a while after losing her grandmother.

32. Select the option which puts the following events in correct order. 1. Maxwell planned to take Mijbil to the bathroom. 2. Mijbil slept at a significant distance from Maxwell’s bed. 3. Mijbil immensely enjoyed playing in water. 4. Mijbil slept in much closer vicinity of the author as opposed to the previous night. (a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 3, 1, 2, 4 (c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2 Answer: (c) 2, 4,1, 3

33. The words “slosh and splash” are examples of the onomatopoeic words that go together phonetically-resembling the sound that they describe. Choose the option that DOES NOT fit the given description. (a) hip hop (b) bow wow (c) tick tock (d) pitter patter Answer: (a) hip hop

34. Choose the option that correctly describes a body-belt in the given context as explained by the four people given below. (a) A body-belt is a device especially made for swimmers and scuba divers, which helps them breathe under W’ater. (b) Body-belts basically resemble the waist belts and keep our body upright, in a standing position. (c) Body-belts are used for restraining while doing certain activities, in order to prevent hurt. (d) A body-belt is an accessory used by body builders for weight training as a measure against muscle and bone injuries. Answer: (c) Body-belts are used for restraining while doing certain activities, in order to prevent hurt.

VI. Read the extract given below and answer the questions/complete the statements that follow:

The moment the letter fell into the mailbox the postmaster went to open it. It said: “God: of the money that I asked for, only seventy pesos reached me. Send me the rest, since I need it very much. But don’t send it to me through the mail because the post office employees are a bunch of crooks, Lencho.”

36. Lencho wrote the second letter as he was: A. unhappy B. curious C. hopeful D. thoughtful E. confident

(a) A, C and E (b) A, B and C (c) B, E and A (d) C, D and E Answer: (a) A, C and E

37. The postmaster opened the letter expecting it to: (A) be full of thanks to God (B) show his happiness (C) be full of anguish for getting less money (D) be accusing God of being miserly

(a) (C) and (D) (b) (A) and (B) (c) (A) and (D) (d) (D) and (B) Answer: (b) (A) and (B)

38. On reading the letter the postmaster was: (a) surprised (b) dismayed (c) pleased (d) puzzled Answer: (b) dismayed

39. ‘the post office employees are a bunch of crooks’ The statement is: (a) thoughtful (b) sad (c) dismissive (d) ironic Answer: (d) ironic

40. Find the suitable word from the extract to complete the following: sanctioned : approved :: demanded : ……………. . (a) fell (b) reached (c) went (d) asked Answer: (d) asked

VII. Read the extract given below and answer the questions/complete the statements that follow:

He should be snarling around houses At the jungle’s edge, Baring his white fangs, his claws, Terrorizing the village! But he’s locked in a concrete cell, His strength behind bars, Stalking the length of his cage, Ignoring visitors.

41. Study the following statements: (A) The villagers don’t feel happy that the tiger is caged. (B) We feel sad that the tiger is caged. (C) The tiger is happy that he doesn’t have to hunt for his food.

(a) (A) is right and (B) is wrong. (b) (B) is right and (A) is wrong. (c) (C) is right and (A) is wrong. (d) (A) is wrong and (C) is right. Answer: (b) (B) is right and (A) is wrong.

42. We should protect the tigers as: (a) they are majestic to look at. (b) they attract visitors to the zoo. (c) they are ferocious. (d) they are part of our environment. Answer: (d) they are part of our environment.

43. The tiger terrorizes the villagers as: (a) by killing their cattle. (b) as he does not like to be hunted. (c) as they have cleared his habitat. (d) as he has got tired of being in the forest. Answer: (a) by killing their cattle.

44. ‘A tiger in the zoo ignoring visitors’ is an example of: (a) Metaphor (b) Simile (c) Irony (d) Personification Answer: (c) Irony

45. The tiger is reacting to his imprisonment in the zoo by: (a) quietly walking in the cage (b) showing his anger openly (c) stalking in the cage (d) ignoring visitors Answer: (d) ignoring visitors

VIII. Read the extract given below and answer the questions/complete the statements that follow:

He escaped easily enough from the boys who followed his footprints in London. But his adventures were by no means over. He had chosen a bad time of the year to wander about London without clothes. It was mid-winter. The air was bitterly cold and he could not do without clothes. Instead of walking about the streets, he decided to slip into a big London store for warmth.

46. The greatest problem for the invisible man was that: (a) being invisible he could do nothing. (b) he could not buy clothes to wear. (c) he was hungry but could not buy food. (d) without clothes he was feeling cold. Answer: (d) without clothes he was feeling cold.

47. He could escape from the boys as: (a) the boys were careless. (b) the boys too felt cold in the winter night. (c) the invisible man was cleverer than the boys. (d) he went along a street where there was no mud. Answer: (d) he went along a street where there was no mud.

48. (A) It was stupid on his part to come out on a winter night. (B) He was not completely stupid, though.

(a) (A) is right and (B) is wrong. (b) (B) is right and (A) is wrong. (c) Both (A) and (B) are right. (d) Both (A) and (B) are wrong. Answer: (c) Both (A) and (B) are right.

49. After getting rid of the boys the invisible man felt: (a) relieved (b) partly relieved (c) anguished (d) comfortable Answer: (b) partly relieved

50. The phrase ‘slip into’ means the same as: (a) fall into (b) enter quietly (c) enter boldly (d) move out Answer: (b) enter quietly

IX. Attempt the following:

51. Has given my heart A change of mood What is the poet’s mood now? (a) Appreciative of nature (b) Thoughtful (c) Happy (d) Cool Answer: (c) Happy

52. ‘Paper has more patience than people’ Which of the following is not true? (a) One can write anything on paper. (b) People have good ears for listening. (c) One can write one’s diary even at night. (d) One may express one’s anger on paper. Answer: (b) People have good ears for listening.

53. In life, every man has twin obligations . (Nelson Mandela) The ‘twin obligations’ are: (a) first to his community and the second to his country. (b) first to his family and the second to his country . (c) first to his country and the second to his parents . (d) first to his community and the second to his family . Answer: (b) first to his family and the second to his country.

54. He had in fact seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it.’ (His First Flight) How did ‘he’ feel? A. Angry B. Greedy C. Jealous D. Hungry

(a) A and B (b) B and C (c) C and D (d) D and A Answer: (c) C and D

55. Mr. Keesing was annoyed with Anne as: (a) she was weak in maths. (b) she had not done her home work. (c) she was a naughty girl. (d) she was very talkative. Answer: (d) she was very talkative.

56. The loss of a possession should make one feel: (a) angry (b) responsible (c) sad (d) careless Answer: (b) responsible

57. The Black Aeroplane is a/an ………… story. (a) ghost (b) adventure (c) mystery (d) true Answer: (c) mystery

58. For Tricky’s present condition: (A) Both Mrs. Pumphrey and Tricky are to blame. (B) Only Tricky is to blame.

(a) (A) is right and (B) is wrong. (b) (B) is right and (A) is wrong. (c) Both (A) and (B) are right. (d) Both (A) and (B) are wrong. Answer: (d) Both (A) and (B) are wrong.

59. It was quite pleasant working for Anil as: (a) he was quite rich. (b) he never complained. (c) he was a very simple person. (d) he could be easily fooled. Answer: (b) he never complained.

60. Griffin became a homeless wanderer because he: (a) was an eccentric scientist. (b) was very greedy. (c) had to go without clothes. (d) had set fire to his landlord’s house. Answer: (d) had set fire to his landlord’s house.

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CBSE Class 10 English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Case Study

Cbse class 10 english chapter analytical paragraph writing case study questions pdfs.

If you are looking for the CBSE Class 10 English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Case Study Questions in PDF, then you are in the right place. CBSE 10th Class Case Study for the English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Subject is available here on this website. These Case studies can help the students to solve the different types of questions that are based on the case study.

CBSE Board will be asking case study questions based on English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing subjects in the upcoming board exams. Thus, it becomes an essential resource to study. 

The English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Subject case study for class 10th covers a wide range of chapters from the English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing. Students willing to score good marks in their board exams can use it. The questions are highly interactive and it allows students to use their thoughts and skills to solve such kinds of questions.

Download CBSE Board Class 10 English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Case Study (Passage Based)

Download links of class 10 English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing case study questions pdf is given on this website. Students can download them for free of cost because it is going to help them to practice questions.

Case Study Questions Class 10 from English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing subjects includes all chapters wise questions. A few passages are given in the case study PDF of English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing. Students can download them to read and solve the relevant questions that are given below the passage.

CBSE Class 10 Case Study Questions of English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing are quite easy to solve if you have a good basic knowledge of English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Subjects. For gaining the basic knowledge students can refer to the NCERT Class 10th Textbooks . After gaining the basic information students can easily solve the case study questions.

Case Study Type Questions in English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Class 10

Case Study Type Questions in English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Class 10 includes the information or data. Students willing to solve them are required to read the passage carefully and then solve them. While solving the paragraph the ideal way is to highlight the key information or given data.

Because, later it will ease them to write the final answers. English Chapter Analytical Paragraph Writing Case study type questions consist of 4 to 5 questions that should be answered in MCQ manner. 

While reading the paragraph students will get the clue in between about the possible answer of the question. They should definitely highlight those questions. This is the best way to solve such kind of Case study Type Questions.

Also, before solving the Case study type questions it is ideal to use the Revision Notes to brush up the previous learnings.

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NCERT Class 10 English Important Questions with Answers | First Flight and Footprints without Feet book

• Class 10 English Important Questions Footprints without Feet Book
• Class 10 English Important Questions First Flight Book

CBSE NCERT Class 10 English Important Questions with Chapter wise solutions

Footprints without feet book important questions.

• Class 10 English Triumph of Surgery Question Answers | Triumph of Surgery NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Thief’s Story Question Answers | The Thief’s Story NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Midnight Visitor Question Answers | The Midnight Visitor NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English A Question of Trust Question Answers | A Question of Trust NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Footprints without Feet Question Answers | Footprints without Feet NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Making of a Scientist Question Answers | The Making of a Scientist NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Necklace Question Answers | The Necklace NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Hack Driver Question Answers | The Hack Driver NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Bholi Question Answers | Bholi NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Book That Saved the Earth Question Answers | The Book That Saved the Earth NCERT Solutions

First Flight Book Important Questions

• Class 10 English A Letter to God Question Answers | A Letter to God NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Nelson Mandela – Long walk to Freedom Question Answers | Nelson Mandela – Long walk to Freedom NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Two Stories About Flying Part 1 His First Flight Question Answers | Two Stories About Flying Part 1 His First Flight NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Two Stories About Flying Part 2 Black Aeroplane| Two Stories About Flying Part 2 Black Aeroplane NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English From The Diary of Anne Frank Question Answers | From The Diary of Anne Frank NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Hundred Dresses 1 Question Answers | The Hundred Dresses 1 NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Hundred Dresses 2 Question Answers | The Hundred Dresses 2 NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Glimpses of India Part 1 A Maker from Goa Question Answers | Glimpses of India Part 1 A Maker from Goa NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Glimpses of India Part 2 Coorg Question Answers | Glimpses of India Part 2 Coorg NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Glimpses of India Part 3 Tea from Assam Answers | Glimpses of India Part 3 Tea from Assam NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Mijbil the Otter Answers | Mijbil the Otter NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Madam Rides the Bus Question Answers | Madam Rides the Bus NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Sermon at Benares Question Answers | Sermon at Benares NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Proposal Question Answers | The Proposal NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Dust of Snow Question Answers | Dust of Snow NCERT Solutions
•   Class 10 English Fire and Ice Question Answers | Fire and Ice NCERT Solutions
•   Class 10 English A Tiger in the Zoo Question Answers | A Tiger in the Zoo NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English How to tell Wild Animals Question Answers | How to tell Wild Animals NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Ball Poem Question Answers | The Ball Poem NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Amanda Question Answers | Amanda NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Trees Question Answers | The Trees NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English Fog Question Answers | Fog NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English The Tale of Custard the Dragon Question Answers | The Tale of Custard the Dragon NCERT Solutions
• Class 10 English For Anne Gregory Question Answers | For Anne Gregory NCERT Solutions

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Tips to Crack Class 10 Board Exams 2023

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Case Study Class 10 English Questions and Answers (Download PDF)

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Case Study Class 10 English

If you are looking for the CBSE Case Study class 10 English in PDF, then you are in the right place. CBSE 10th Class Case Study for the English Subject is available here on this website. These Case studies can help the students to solve the different types of questions that are based on the case study or passage.

CBSE Board will be asking case study questions based on English subjects in the upcoming board exams. Thus, it becomes an essential resource to study. 

The Case Study Class 10 English Questions cover a wide range of chapters from the subject. Students willing to score good marks in their board exams can use it to practice questions during the exam preparation. The questions are highly interactive and it allows students to use their thoughts and skills to solve the given Case study questions.

Download Class 10 English Case Study Questions and Answers PDF (Passage Based)

Download links of class 10 English Case Study questions and answers pdf is given on this website. Students can download them for free of cost because it is going to help them to practice a variety of questions from the exam perspective.

Case Study questions class 10 English include all chapters wise questions. A few passages are given in the case study PDF of English. Students can download them to read and solve the relevant questions that are given in the passage.

Students are advised to access Case Study questions class 10 English CBSE chapter wise PDF and learn how to easily solve questions. For gaining the basic knowledge students can refer to the NCERT Class 10th Textbooks. After gaining the basic information students can easily solve the Case Study class 10 English questions.

How to Solve Case Study Based Questions Class 10 English?

In order to solve the Case Study Based Questions Class 10 English students are needed to observe or analyse the given information or data. Students willing to solve Case Study Based Questions are required to read the passage carefully and then solve them. 

While solving the class 10 English Case Study questions, the ideal way is to highlight the key information or given data. Because, later it will ease them to write the final answers. 

Case Study class 10 English consists of 4 to 5 questions that should be answered in MCQ manner. While answering the MCQs of Case Study, students are required to read the paragraph as they can get some clue in between related to the topics discussed.

Also, before solving the Case study type questions it is ideal to use the CBSE Syllabus to brush up the previous learnings.

Features Of Class 10 English Case Study Questions And Answers Pdf

Students referring to the Class 10 English Case Study Questions And Answers Pdf from Selfstudys will find these features:-

• Accurate answers of all the Case-based questions given in the PDF.
• Case Study class 10 English solutions are prepared by subject experts referring to the CBSE Syllabus of class 10.
• Free to download in Portable Document Format (PDF) so that students can study without having access to the internet.

Benefits of Using CBSE Class 10 English Case Study Questions and Answers

Since, CBSE Class 10 English Case Study Questions and Answers are prepared by our English experts referring to the CBSE Class 10 English Syllabus , it provided benefits in various way:-

• Case study class 10 English helps in exam preparation since, CBSE Class 10 Question Papers contain case-based questions.
• It allows students to utilise their learning to solve real life problems.
• Solving case study questions class 10 English helps students in developing their observation skills.
• Those students who solve Case Study Class 10 English on a regular basis become extremely good at answering normal formula based English questions.
• By using class 10 English Case Study questions and answers pdf, students focus more on Selfstudys instead of wasting their valuable time.
• With the help of given solutions students learn to solve all Case Study questions class 10 English CBSE chapter wise pdf regardless of its difficulty level.

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Important Questions for Class 10 English with Answers – PDF

Important Questions for CBSE Class 10 English with Answers are available here. All these questions are from the book ‘First Flight’ and ‘Footprints without Feet’. These questions are prepared by the examination experts and are very helpful to revise the syllabus way ahead of the board exam. All the questions are provided with simple and accurate answers.

Class 10 English Important Questions with Answers

Below we have provided Class 10 English Important Questions with Answers. Access the PDF of these questions by clicking the links mentioned below.

Important Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Prose

• Chapter 1 – A Letter to God
• Chapter 2 – Nelson Mandela: Long Walk to Freedom
• Chapter 3 – Two Stories about Flying
• Chapter 4 – From the Diary of Anne Frank
• Chapter 5 – The Hundred Dresses Part 1
• Chapter 6 – The Hundred Dresses Part 2
• Chapter 7 – Glimpses of India (Baker from Goa)
• Chapter 7 – Glimpses of India (Coorg)
• Chapter 7 – Glimpses of India (Tea from Assam)
• Chapter 8 – Mijbil the Otter
• Chapter 9 – Madam Rides the Bus
• Chapter 10 – The Sermon at Benares
• Chapter 11 – The Proposal

Important Questions for Class 10 English Footprints Without Feet

• Chapter 1 – A Triumph of Surgery
• Chapter 2 – The Thief’s Story
• Chapter 3 – The Midnight Visitor
• Chapter 4 – A Question of Trust
• Chapter 5 – Footprints without Feet
• Chapter 6 – The Making of a Scientist
• Chapter 7 – The Necklace
• Chapter 8 – The Hack Driver
• Chapter 9 – Bholi
• Chapter 10 – The Book that Saved the Earth

Important Questions for Class 10 English First Flight Poem

• Poem 1 – Dust of Snow
• Poem 2 – Fire and Ice
• Poem 3 – A Tiger in the Zoo
• Poem 4 – How to Tell Wild Animals
• Poem 5 – The Ball Poem
• Poem 6 – Amanda
• Poem 7 – Animals
• Poem 8 – The Trees
• Poem 9 – Fog
• Poem 10 – The Tale of Custard the Dragon
• Poem 11 – For Anne Gregory

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CBSE - Class 10 - English Language and Literature - Reading - Case Study Passage - CBSE Test Papers

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